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Getting Divorce with condition property 50/50

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asked on Nov 1, 2019 at 11:24
by  
hi! 
Hopes any expertise here can help with my frustration. 

My wife and I getting a divorce but with her ultimate condition that my only property to be sell off and the value sold divided into 50/50. 

The reason for getting a divorce is not due to 3rd parties or outside affairs. 
And we don't have children. 

But my problem, this is the only property I have whereas, she has 2 properties which she had rented out and furthermore she has her day job.  

So, legally speaking do I have to abide to her "requirement"? 
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2 Answers

answered on Nov 1, 2019 at 20:40
by  
edited Nov 1, 2019 at 20:48
by   jeff005
1. It appears you are the one who is seeking for the divorce, that's why she is making demands.

2. she has 2 properties 
For the same token you can also ask for 50/50 share, subject to many other situations whether all the the properties were purchased during the period of the marriage. The Laws is FAIR.

3.   legally speaking do I have to abide to her "requirement"? 
Nobody is or can be forcing you to accept unless she has put a knife at your throat or a gun pointed behind your ears to shoot you.

Go find a real experienced divorce lawyer to help your case.
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answered on Nov 15, 2019 at 20:17
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jeff005 is a bitter old man
His wife left him and he escaped to Thailand
He spends his days answering on lawyerment
When he has time he f.u.c..ks kathoeys like a true gent
He says he works in Thailand,
But everyone knows his true purpose is to hold little boys hands!
jeff005 edits his posts to hide his mistake
with a forked tongue as cruel as a snake
63 years old with nothing to show for it
tick-tock jeff your funeral will be a hit!
oh i almost forget nobody will attend
because you don't even have a single friend!
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