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Getting divorce with condition 50/50 property division

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asked on Nov 1, 2019 at 11:24
by  
edited on Mar 14, 2020 at 00:34
 
My wife and I are getting a divorce but with her ultimate condition that my only property to be sold off and the value sold divided into 50/50. 

The reason for getting a divorce is not due to 3rd parties or outside affairs. And we don't have children. 

But my problem, this is the only property I have whereas, she has 2 properties which she has rented out and furthermore she has her day job.  

So, legally speaking do I have to abide to her "requirement"?

I hope any expertise here can help with my frustration.
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1 Answers

answered on Nov 1, 2019 at 20:40
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edited Mar 12, 2020 at 16:21
 
1. It appears you are the one who is seeking for the divorce, that's why she is making demands.

2. she has 2 properties
For the same token you can also ask for 50/50 share, subject to many other situations whether all the the properties were purchased during the period of the marriage. The law is FAIR.

3.  legally speaking do I have to abide to her "requirement"?
Nobody is or can be forcing you to accept unless she has put a knife at your throat or a gun pointed behind your ears to shoot you.

Go find a real experienced divorce lawyer to help your case.
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